Contract High school Teacher Odisha CHT 2021 Arts Question Paper
CHT ODISHA 2021 ARTS
Paper I General Knowledge and Current Affairs
Q1. Which of the following options includes machinery, work plants, equipment, new technology, factories, buildings and goods that are designed to increase the productive potential of the economy?
A) Working Capital
B) Capital Productivity
C) Infrastructure
D) Fixed Capital
_____________________________________________________________
Q2. Which one of the following gases is used to extinguish fire?
A) Methane
B) Carbon dioxide
C) Ethanol
D) Gasoline
_____________________________________________________________
Q3. Which of the following options is the highest mountain peak in African Continent?
A) Mount Kilimanjaro
B) Atlas Mountain
C) Mount Aconcagua
D) Mount Vinson Massif
_____________________________________________________________
Q4. During which of the following events did Pandit Gopabandhu Das start a forceful movement for separation of Odisha from Bengal?
A) Quit India Movement
B) Simon Commission
C) First Round Table Conference
D) First World War
_____________________________________________________________
Q5. Which of the following document was submitted by Government of India before COP21 in Paris?
A) Nation's Intention and purpose for Revitalization
B) Collective Contribution and Rejuvenate Nature
C) Intended Nationally Determined Contributions
D) Climate Change and Determined Nation
_____________________________________________________________
Q6. How many types of Writs are mentioned in the Article 32 of the Indian Constitution?
A) 4
B) 6
C) 5
D) 7
_____________________________________________________________
Q7. River Godavari originates from which of the following states in India?
A) Tamil Nadu
B) Telangana
C) Maharashtra
D) Andhra Pradesh
_____________________________________________________________
Q8. In which of the following countries is Lake Baikal, one of the deepest lakes in the world, located?
A) Russia
B) Ukraine
C) China
D) Egypt
_____________________________________________________________
Q9. In which of the following neighbouring countries of India is the highest fresh water lake Manansarovar located?
A) Nepal
B) Bhutan
C) Afghanistan
D) China
_____________________________________________________________
Q10.The separation of visible light into its different colours by a prism is known as:
A) Reflection
B) Interference
C) Refraction
D) Dispersion
_____________________________________________________________
Q11. In June 2021, Odisha Government has partnered with which organization of United Nations to improve household food and nutritional security by strengthening the livelihood initiatives and reaching the thousands of state-supported Women’s Self-Help Groups (WSHGs)?
A) World Bank Group
B) World Health Organization
C) World Food Programme
D) Food and Agriculture Organization
_____________________________________________________________
Q12.In August 2021, who among the following hockey players was conferred with the prestigious Biju Patnaik Sports Award for outstanding performance in sports?
A) Birendra Lakra
B) Namita Toppo
C) Amit Rohidas
D) Kalu Charan Choudhary
_____________________________________________________________
Q13. Arrange the given events in the History of Odisha in the CORRECT chronological order.
(i) In the Second Round Table Conference held in London, it was decided that Orissa would be a separate province.
(ii) Baji Rout, the youngest martyr from Odisha in the history of the freedom movement of India was killed by British police.
(iii) Orissa Tenancy Act was passed.
(iv) Bihar-Orissa were separated from Bengal province.
A) (iv) - (iii) - (ii) - (i)
B) (iv) - (iii) - (i) - (ii)
C) (ii) - (iv) - (i) - (iii)
D) (iii) - (iv) - (i) - (ii)
_____________________________________________________________
Q14. The branch of medicine which deals with the study of the digestive system and disorders associated with it, is:
A) Oncology
B) Entomology
C) Gastroenterology
D) Genealogy
_____________________________________________________________
Q15. In 2020, a workshop on “Enabling Procedures for Increase of Steel Usage for the Growth of Economy” was organised at Bhubaneshwar by the Ministry of Steel in partnership with Confederation of Indian Industries (CII) and which of the following countries?
A) France
B) Australia
C) South Korea mool
D) Japan
_____________________________________________________________
Q16. Choose the CORRECT option for the given statements.
(i) The swadeshi idea provoked Madhusudan Das to set up Utkal Tannery and an Art Ware at Cuttack.
(ii) At a meeting in the Cuttack Municipal Hall Madhusudan Das gave a clarion call to the people of Odisha to boycott the foreign goods.
A) Both the statements (i) and (ii) are False
B) Both the statements (i) and (ii) are True
C) Statement (i) is True and (ii) is False
D) Statement (i) is False and (ii) is True
_____________________________________________________________
Q17. As per the Constitution, which among the following options is one of the Fundamental Duty of the citizens of India?
A) To maintain just and honourable relations between nations
B) To encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration
C) To promote international peace and security
D) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
_____________________________________________________________
Q18. Which one of the following waves CANNOT pass through vacuum?
A) Sound waves
B) Microwaves
C) Ultraviolet waves
D) Gamma rays
_____________________________________________________________
Q19. Different countries are classified at different levels of development. On which of the following criteria is a countries are classified as a developed countries?
A) High per capita income
B) High incidence rate of poverty
C) High level of unemployment
D) Low standard of living
_____________________________________________________________
Q20. As per the Constitution of India, who among the following is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both the Houses of Parliament of India?
A) Governor of the State
B) Vice President of India
C) Chief Justice of India
D) Attorney General of India
_____________________________________________________________
Q21.Select one of the following four options that will make the 2nd pair analogous to the 1st pair given
6942 : 2496 : : 4175 : ?
A) 1475
B) 1457
C) 5741
D) 5714
_____________________________________________________________
Q22. Select one of the following four options that will make the second pair analogous to the first pair given:
LATERAL : TALELAR : : POINT :?
A) OPITN
B) NTOPI
C) OTNPI
D) OIPNT
_____________________________________________________________
Q23. A man walks 2 km towards north from point A and turns to his right and walks 4 km. He turns right and walks 3 km and again turns right and walks 4 km to reach point B. How far is he from his starting point?
A) 3 km
B) 2 km
C) 1 km
D) 13 km
_____________________________________________________________
Q24.
In which quarter the sale of Mercedes was the lowest?
A) Quarter 1
B) Quarter 3
C) Quarter 2
D) Quarter 4
_____________________________________________________________
Q25. What must be added to each of the numbers 7 and 13 so that the resultant ratio becomes 2:3 ?
A) 2
B) 5
C) 1
D) 3
Q26. In which match Rohit scored same number of runs as the number of balls faced?
A) Match 1
B) Match 3
C) Match 2
D) Match 4
_____________________________________________________________
Q27. Ram's father's sister's mother's only daughter in law is Urvashi. How is Urvashi related to Ram?
A) Niece
B) Grandmother
C) Sister
D) Mother
_____________________________________________________________
Q28.Vijay is the son in law of Rajeev's father Suman. How is Rajeev's only sister related to Vijay?
A) Wife
B) Mother
C) Sister in law
D) Sister
_____________________________________________________________
Q29. Pointing to a photograph of a person, Rajan said that the person in the photograph is my father's brother's son. How is that person related to Rajan's sister?
A) Son
B) Father
C) Uncle
D) Cousin
_____________________________________________________________
Q30. Select one of the following four options that will make the second pair analogous to the first pair given :
Pentagon : 5 :: Decagon : ?
A) 10
B) 25
C) 35
D) 15
_____________________________________________________________
Q31. Given below a set of inequalities given as statements. Choose the conclusion(s) that logically follows the statements by selecting a relevant option.
Statements:X > P ≥ R, O = N > S ≤ R
Conclusions:
I.P > O
II.X > S
A) Neither I nor II follows
B) Both I and II follow
C) Only I follows
D) Only II follows
_____________________________________________________________
Q32. Select one of the following four options that will make the 2nd pair analogous to the 1st pair given.
BUGS : UBSG : : RING : ?
A) IRNG
B) RGIN
C) RIGN
D) IRGN
_____________________________________________________________
Q33. A radio was purchased for ₹ 490 and sold for ₹ 465.50. What was the loss percentage?
A) 6%
B) 5%
C) 7%
D) 4%
_____________________________________________________________
Q34. In a certain code language, if “LIFE” is coded as “6294” and “DEATH” is coded as “74018”, then what group of letters is coded as “2106489”?
A) ITAELHF
B) ITALFHE
C) ITALHEF
D) ITALEHF
_____________________________________________________________
Q35. Given below a set of inequalities given as statements. Choose the conclusion(s) that logically follows the statements by selecting a relevant option.
Statement: F > R ≥ I > D ≥ G < E
Conclusion:
I. G > R
II. R > G
III. G ≥ R
A) Only II follows
B) Only II and III follows
C) Only I follows
D) Only III follows
_____________________________________________________________
Q36. A person incurs a loss of 5% by selling a watch for ₹ 1,140. At what price should the watch be sold to earn a 5% profit?
A) ₹ 1,150
B) ₹ 1,420
C) ₹ 1,260
D) ₹ 1,355
_____________________________________________________________
Q37.
How many trucks did Tata Motors sell in the complete year approximately?
A) 4500
B) 4900
C) 3600
D) 4100
_____________________________________________________________
Q38. Select one of the following four options that will make the second pair analogous to the first pair given:
(3 + 4 + 5) : 60 :: ( 4 + 5 + 6) : ?
A) 100
B) 180
C) 90
D) 120
_____________________________________________________________
Q39. Arun, Barun and Chetan can together complete a piece of work in 8 days. Arun alone can complete it in 15 days and Barun alone in 18 days. How many days will be taken by Chetan to complete it alone?
A) 360 days
B) 320 days
C) 256 days
D) 268 days
_____________________________________________________________
Q40.
What is the ratio of sales in second quarter by Volvo to sales in first quarter by Mercedes?
A) 5:4
B) 2:1
C) 3:2
D) 4:3
_____________________________________________________________
Q41. Which of the following option will allow multiple users to work on same word document at a time instead of multiple documents?
A) Splitting and Collaborating a word document
B) None of the given options
C) Word document sharing through mail
D) Place the doc in onedrive/google drive and share with the users
_____________________________________________________________
Q42. Which protocol is used in world wide web to transfer the data?
A) FTP
B) CDMA
C) DSL
D) HTTP/HTTPS
_____________________________________________________________
Q43. In magnetic disc the tracks further divided into
A) Platters
B) Sectors
C) Disks
D) Cylinders
_____________________________________________________________
Q44. Which Social Networking site is explicitly used by working professionals for sharing job related information and vacancies?
A) Instagram
B) LinkedIn
C) Twitter
D) YouTube
_____________________________________________________________
Q45. Choose the option that is temporary location for deleted files or folders
A) This PC
B) Recyclebin
C) Documents
D) Trash
_____________________________________________________________
Q46. The Capslock key is not working in the keyboard.If A user wants to type a capital letter then what is the other method to do the same
A) Alt+character
B) Fn+character
C) Spacebar+character
D) Shift+character
_____________________________________________________________
Q47. Mr.X is started communication over the internet using credentials of Mr.Y.This is known as
A) Identity theft
B) Denial of service attack
C) Man in the middle attack
D) Phishing
_____________________________________________________________
Q48. "Browser is loading web pages very slowly" If the above needs an immediate resolution, then which of the following will not be a choice to resolve it
A) Clear the cache content
B) Disabling unwanted browser extensions
C) Antivirus installation
D) Change of Keyboard
_____________________________________________________________
Q49. The Physical address of a device is also known as _____________
A) Logical address
B) MAC address
C) Virtual Address
D) Source address
_____________________________________________________________
Q50. Identify the option that is different from others
A) OCR
B) Joystick
C) Speakers
D) Trackball
_____________________________________________________________
Q51. Match the marks range and grade in CBSE 9 point grading system for the secondary stage classes
A) a)6 b)1 c)4 d) 2 e)9
B) a)3 b)5 c)6 d)3 e)8
C) a)5 b)2 c)8 d) 3 e)7
D) a)6 b)3 c)7 d)4 e)9
_____________________________________________________________
Q52. A child presumes earth to be flat based on her direct experience of the landscape around her. This is an example of
A) Deduction
B) Experience
C) Schemas
D) Concepts
_____________________________________________________________
Q53. ‘Let’s see, what kind of answer is the problem asking for?’ Is a kind of self-talk individuals could exhibit while solving a problem. This kind of self-talk that guides thinking and action is called as
A) PEP Speech
B) Self- Speech
C) Guided Thinking
D) Private Speech
_____________________________________________________________
Q54. A school in a democratic society can demonstrate the ideals of democracy when the teacher in the class acts as a
A) Dictator who directs everything
B) Guide who facilitates learning
C) Authority who has all the power
D) Person of wisdom who has all the information
_____________________________________________________________
Q55. Which of the following is TRUE about determining the weightage to different instructional objectives?
A) While deciding weightage we need not keep in mind the importance of the particular objective for that subject or chapter.
B) All the subjects contain different learning objectives like knowledge, un¬derstanding, application and skill in equal proportion
C) All the arrays of instructional objectives can be included in a standardised test
D) In a written test we cannot measure the psychomotor domain and affective domain
_____________________________________________________________
Q56. In order to reduce subjectivity and increase transparency in scoring oral presentations and speeches, it’s best to use
A) Multiple evaluations
B) Rubrics
C) Compiled scores
D) Criteria
_____________________________________________________________
Q57. The essential qualities or criteria of an effective tool do NOT include
A) Objectivity
B) Popularity
C) Reliability
D) Validity
_____________________________________________________________
Q58. Small children are sometimes seen to demand that they be given a chance to drive. This is clearly indicative of
A) Lack of schemes
B) Lack of accommodation
C) Lack of organisation
D) Lack of adaptation
_____________________________________________________________
Q59. "Bullying involves undesirable and aggressive behavior among school aged children which involves a real or a perceived power imbalance." Which type of bullying involves purposefully excluding someone from a group, or embarassing someone on purpose ?
A) Mental bullying
B) Verbal bullying
C) Social bullying
D) Physical bullying
_____________________________________________________________
Q60. Planning includes
A) Goal setting
B) Authority and accountability patterns
C) Appropriate leadership
D) Functional decision-making
_____________________________________________________________
Q61. The principal target of this mission is to impart functional literacy to 70 million
A) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
B) Padhe Bharat Badhe Bharat
C) National Literacy Mission
D) Saakshar Bharat
_____________________________________________________________
Q62. The ability to think abstractly about the role of concepts like democracy, human rights and justice for a fair society as per Piaget’s stages of development is a characteristic of
A) Sensorimotor stage
B) Formal operational stage
C) Concrete operational stage
D) Pre-operational stage
_____________________________________________________________
Q63. The physical changes that take place during adolescence are
A) Susceptable
B) Dimensional
C) Universal
D) Habitual
_____________________________________________________________
Q64. One of the reasons for revision of the National Educational Policy, 1986 in the year 1992 is
A) Shift in the focus of the nation due to multiple governments
B) New reality in the from of economic liberalisation in 1990’s
C) Change in government and consequently their priorities
D) Substantial errors were noticed in the policy of 1986
_____________________________________________________________
Q65. What is the purpose of evaluation?
A) To measure the achievement of students
B) To assign a mark to a student
C) To make reliable decisions about educational planning
D) To test the students in a subject
_____________________________________________________________
Q66. Evaluation helps to make judgments about educational:
A) Time period
B) Quantity
C) Age
D) Quality
_____________________________________________________________
Q67. 10+2+3 structure was recommended by which educational commission
A) Yash Pal Committee Report
B) Radhakrishna Commision
C) Kothari commission
D) New Education Policy, 1986
Q68. The challenge to any classroom structure is to provide right challenge to the students. An appropriate design of the classroom that allows students to work at their own level of ability and also have access to teacher’s expertise is best described by
A) Recalling form memory tests
B) Projects that are open-ended
C) Multiple-choice tests
D) Verbatim competitions
_____________________________________________________________
Q69. Children’s behaviour in the classroom is determined by several kinds of reasoning as per Nancy Eisenberg. Which of the following behaviours exhibits the ‘approval-oriented’ reasoning?
A) Considering how teachers would respond to her action
B) Expectation fo fun in the party
C) Assessment of need for help in the situation
D) Considering the most decent thing to do
Q70. Designing a classroom so that enough practice can take place in order to master a skill or become clear of procedure helps in the thickening of
A) Myelin sheath
B) Dendrite
C) Axon
D) Synapse
_____________________________________________________________
Q71. The educational policy in India that had an imbalanced importance on the English language is ascribed to which education commission?
A) The Reforms Act of 1935
B) The Reforms Act of 1813
C) Hunter Commission
D) Macaulay’s Minutes
Q72. Which of the following kinds of learning is NOT based on type of activity?
A) Verbal Learning
B) Discrimination Learning
C) Individuals learning
D) Motor Learning
Q73. The Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan is
a. A programme with a clear time frame for universal elementary education.
b. A response to the demand for quality basic education all over the country.
c. An opportunity for promoting social justice through higher education.
Score Obtained : 1.0
A) Only a
B) Only b & c
C) Only c & a
D) Only a & b
_____________________________________________________________
Q2796778 With reference to the emphasis on digital transformation and initiation of courses like coding, the main issue with NEP, 2020 would be to manage
Score Obtained : -0.25
A) Creating a legal framework for the syllabus on IT
B) Developing a unique curriculum suitable to India
C) A network of schools that can interact and excel
D) The extent of digital divide that exists in India
_____________________________________________________________
Q2796801 A question stem with alternatives for answers is
Score Obtained : 1.0
A) Multiple-choice questions
B) Complex questions
C) Matching questions
D) Fill-in-the blank questions
_____________________________________________________________
Q2799116 Learning to drive a car with gear and then shifting to driving a car with an automatic gear system requires
Score Obtained : -0.25
A) Accommodation
B) Assimilation
C) Acclimatisation
D) Adaptation
_____________________________________________________________
Q2796693 The goal of Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan Mission is to
Score Obtained : 1.0
A) Retention of all children in school
B) Provide Mid day Meals
C) Provide play ground in all schools
D) Providing Grants to Schools
_____________________________________________________________
Q2798291 A teacher asks her students to read a passage. She then observes them and records her observations about their reading skills. She then gives them feedback. Which form of assessment is the teacher following?
Score Obtained : 1.0
A) Formative assessment
B) CCE
C) Summative assessment
D) Research
_____________________________________________________________
Q2796704 Transfer of learning may take place in three ways. Identify them
Score Obtained : 0.0
A) Plus, Minus, Zero
B) Addictive, Consecutive, Zero
C) Positive, Negative, Neutral
D) Positive, Negative, Zero
_____________________________________________________________
Q2796819 Which of the following is a feature of learner-centred assessment?
Score Obtained : 1.0
A) Learners are actively involved in assessment process.
B) Learner-centred assessment relates to managemet's goals
C) Learner-centred assessment is a single imodal
D) Learner-centred assessment involves narrow data
_____________________________________________________________
Q2796805 A questionnaire seeking students reflection on their progress in their lesson including on how they feel is a
Score Obtained : -0.25
A) Diagnostic assessment
B) Constructed assessment
C) Self-assessment
D) Standard assessment
_____________________________________________________________
Q2796833 Identify the correct sequence of the four main steps of a standardized test.
A. 1. Planning the test 2. Trying out the test 3. Preparing the test 4. Evaluating the test
B. 1. Preparing the test 2. Planning the test 3. Evaluating the test 4. Trying out the test
C. 1. Preparing the test 2. Trying out the test 3. Evaluating the test 4. Planning the test
D. 1. Planning the test 2. Preparing the test 3. Trying out the test 4. Evaluating the test
Score Obtained : 1.0
A) A
B) D
C) B
D) C
_____________________________________________________________
Q2799115 The orderly, durable changes in learners resulting from a combination of experience, learning, and maturation’ can be defined as
Score Obtained : 0.0
A) Innate Learning
B) Child Development
C) Mental Cognition
D) Compulsive Socialisation
_____________________________________________________________
Q2798273 Which of the following research methods would be most suitable to assess the impact of homework submissions on learning?
Score Obtained : 0.0
A) Action
B) Descriptive
C) Correlational
D) Experimental
_____________________________________________________________
Q2798285 While planning a lesson, time management must include
Score Obtained : -0.25
A) Sufficient time for humour and entertainment
B) Only the lesson objectives
C) Time for assessing learning
D) Learning objectives and non-instruction routines
_____________________________________________________________
Q2796820 All of the following are merits of a semester system EXCEPT:
B) Semester system increases the workload on teachers and students
C) Semester system keeps the students engaged in studies throughout the year
D) Semester system allows greater interaction with teachers and students
_____________________________________________________________
Q2796736 Development is lifelong, i.e. it takes place across all age groups starting from conception to old age. It includes both gains and losses. This is an assumption in which of the following perspectives?
A) Little-Span Perspective
B) Long-Span Perspective
C) Large-Span Perspective
D) Life-Span Perspective
_____________________________________________________________
Q2798275 Which among the following is an objective of affective domain?
A) Conceptual knowledge
B) Procedural knowledge
C) Perceptual abilities
D) Organising
_____________________________________________________________
Q2798266 The cerebral cortex in the human brain is particularly significant because
A) It makes possible neural plasticity
B) It is unique to humans alone
C) It helps in emotional thinking
D) It helps in planning and logical thinking
_____________________________________________________________
Q2798267 Small children are sometimes seen to demand that they be given a chance to drive. This is clearly indicative of
A) Lack of adaptation
B) Lack of schemes
C) Lack of organisation
D) Lack of accommodation
_____________________________________________________________
Q2797559 When was the Rowlatt Act passed by the Imperial Legislative Council ?
A) 1929
B) 1919
C) 1909
D) 1922
_____________________________________________________________
Q2797546 In which part of the Indian Constitution, the mind of the makers is reflected?
A) Socialism and Secularism
B) Figures in the Preamble
C) The Preamble
D) Fundamental Rights
_____________________________________________________________
Q2797543 Which among the following options was the first reform movement which started in the 19th Century?
A) Brahmo Samaj
B) Prathana Samaj
C) Arya Samaj
D) Rama Krishna Mission
_____________________________________________________________
Q2797565 Special provisions with respect to the State of Andhra Pradesh or the State of Telangana is mentioned in which article of the Indian Constitution?
A) Article 361 D
B) Article 371 D
C) Article 341
D) Article 351
_____________________________________________________________
Q2797558 Under which title the National Anthem of India ‘Jana-Gana-Mana’ was first published in the 'Tatva Bodhini Patrika' in January 1912, which was composed by Rabindra Nath Tagore?
Score Obtained : 0.0
A) Jay He Jay Ho
B) Bharatiya Gaan
C) Rashtra Jan Jagriti
D) Bharat Bidhata
_____________________________________________________________
Q2797538 From which Upanishad the Government of India has adopted the State Emblem the words, Satyameva Jayate?
Score Obtained : 0.0
A) Mundaka Upanishad
B) Taittiriya Upanishad
C) Chandogya Upanishad
D) Kausitaki Upanishad
_____________________________________________________________
Q2797564 The CORRECT relationship between Rights and Duties in the context of India Constitution, is indicated in which of the following options?
Score Obtained : 0.0
A) Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labours
B) Rights and Duties are correlative and inseparable
C) Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State
D) Directive Principles of State Policy
_____________________________________________________________
Q2797560 A new calendar, a new system of coinage, and new scales of weights and measures were introduced during the reign of which ruler, approximately during the years (1782- 1799)?
Score Obtained : 0.0
A) Raghunath Rao
B) Mohammad Bin-Tughlaq
C) Siraj ud-Daulah
D) Tipu Sultan
_____________________________________________________________
Q2797545 The power of Judicial review is most clearly expressed in which of the two provisions of the Indian Constitution?
Score Obtained : 0.0
A) Article 32 and Article 300
B) Article 12 and Article 226
C) Article 51 and Article 250
D) Article 32 and Article 226
_____________________________________________________________
Q2797539 Which of the remains that was excavated in Indus Valley indicates its Commercial and Economic Development?
A) The boats
B) The houses
C) The Pottery
D) Seals
_____________________________________________________________
Q2797569 The eastern and western edges of the Deccan plateau are formed by the mountains of
Score Obtained : 1.0
A) Himalayan Mountains
B) Nilgiri Hills
C) Eastern and Western Ghats
D) Andes Mountains
_____________________________________________________________
Q2797556 Which one among the following activities comes under the Agriculture Sector?
Score Obtained : 1.0
A) Dairy
B) Tertiary sector
C) Basket weaver
D) Mineral excavation
_____________________________________________________________
Q2797548 As per India 2017, which Indian state has the minimum total forest cover?
Score Obtained : 0.0
A) Assam
B) Sikkim
C) Punjab
D) Haryana
_____________________________________________________________
Q2797555 Which among the following options was NOT a high value indicator of Social Backwardness during the British rule in India?
Score Obtained : 0.0
A) Literacy Rate
B) Life Expectancy
C) Civil laws and courts
D) Female Literacy
_____________________________________________________________
Q2797568 The soil which is mostly confined to river basins and coastal plains of India?
Score Obtained : 0.0
A) Red soils
B) Alluvial soils
C) Laterite soils
D) Black soils
_____________________________________________________________
Q2797552 Near which of the following ranges is the highest point of Panchmadhi situated?
Score Obtained : 0.0
A) Satpuras
B) Nanga Parbat
C) Nandadevi
D) Kanchenjunga
_____________________________________________________________
Q2797575 Which one among the following options is the main objective of National Literacy Mission?
Score Obtained : 1.0
A) Computer education
B) Adult education
C) Abroad education
D) Primary education
_____________________________________________________________
Q2797553 A very large area with less details is shown by the map of
Score Obtained : 0.0
A) Sketches
B) Statements
C) Small scale
D) Large scale
_____________________________________________________________
Q2797514 What is the initial adopted model of the Planned Economy in India called?
Score Obtained : 0.0
A) Mixed Economy system
B) Gandhian system
C) Socialist system
D) Capitalist system
_____________________________________________________________
Q2797573 The magnetic compass is generally used for :
Score Obtained : 1.0
A) measuring distance
B) finding the directions
C) showing symbols
D) finding large area distances
_____________________________________________________________
Q2798343 “Shere Khan does us great honor,” said Father Wolf, but his eyes were very angry. “What does Shere Khan need?”
“My quarry. A man’s cub went this way,” said Shere Khan. “Its parents have run off. Give it to me.”Shere Khan had jumped at a woodcutter’s campfire, as Father Wolf had said, and was furious from the pain of his burned feet. But Father Wolf knew that the mouth of the cave was too narrow for a tiger to come in by. Even where he was, Shere Khan’s shoulders and forepaws were cramped for want of room, as a man’s would be if he tried to fight in a barrel.
“The Wolves are a free people,” said Father Wolf. “They take orders from the Head of the Pack, and not from any striped cattle-killer. The man’s cub is ours—to kill if we choose.”
“Ye choose and ye do not choose! What talk is this of choosing? By the bull that I killed, am I to stand nosing into your dog’s den for my fair dues? It is I, Shere Khan, who speak!”
Q2798347 Who was protecting the man cub?
A) Shere Khan
B) The animals
C) The animal children
D) Father wolf
_____________________________________________________________
Q2798344 What did Shere Khan want?
A) Food as he was hungry
B) To be the king of the pack
C) The father wolf
D) The man cub
_____________________________________________________________
Q2798345 Why was Shere Khan furious?
A) He wanted the man cub
B) He was being opposed
C) He wanted more food
D) His feet were burnt
_____________________________________________________________
Q2798346 What was Shere Khan's physical position?
A) Like a majestic tiger
B) Like a man fighting in a barrel
C) Like a wounded animal
D) Like a child in danger
_____________________________________________________________
Q2798348 Whose order did the wolves follow?
A) President
B) Pack leader
C) Shere Khan
D) The people
_____________________________________________________________
Q2798314 Fill in the blanks with the correct form of verb:
The referee ____________ the final whistle.
A) blow
B) blew
C) have blown
D) must blown
_____________________________________________________________
Q2798324 You will find a sentence using direct speech (words actually spoken) followed by four options. You are required to choose the one that is the correct form of the sentence in indirect/reported speech.
Jack said, "We had very heavy showers last night."
A) Jack said they had very heavy showers last night
B) Jack said that they had had very heavy showers the previous night
C) Jack said we had very heavy showers the previous night
D) Jack said they have very heavy showers the previous night
_____________________________________________________________
Q2798315 Fill in the blanks with the correct form of verb:
Birds ________ the natural enemies of many insect pests.
A) is
B) was
C) are
D) have
_____________________________________________________________
Q2797836 Read the following passage and answer the questions:
Because I feel that, in the Heavens above,
The angels, whispering to one another,
Can find, among their burning terms of love,
None so devotional as that of "Mother,"
Therefore, by that dear name I long have called you—
You who are more than mother unto me,
And fill my heart of hearts, where Death installed you
In setting my Virginia's spirit free.
My mother—my own mother, who died early,
Was but the mother of myself; but you
Are mother to the one I loved so dearly,
And thus, are dearer than the mother I knew
By that infinity with which my wife
Was dearer to my soul than its soul-life.
Q2797855 Which of the following is the gist of the poem?
A) Nothing is more devotional than a mother
B) One should love a wife more than one’s mother
C) All mothers go to heaven because they are angels
D) Own mother is not so dear as one’s wife’s mother
_____________________________________________________________
Q2797852 Whom do the angels consider as most devotional?
A) Mother
B) Love
C) The poet
D) Death
_____________________________________________________________
Q2797853 Which of the following statements find support in the poem?
A) The poet’s mother is still alive
B) The poet loved his wife and mother equally
C) The poet called his wife’s mother as mother
D) The angels are talking about the poet
_____________________________________________________________
Q2797854 The poet is holding his wife dearer than
A) His mother
B) Heavens
C) Angels
D) His soul
_____________________________________________________________
Q2797856 The term ‘burning terms of love’ means
A) The burning topic of interest among angels and mothers
B) The term love is a contentious term even for the angels
C) In heaven the term love is burning among angels
D) Discussion as to who represents the term love the best
_____________________________________________________________
Q2797863 Identify the word which has similar pronunciation as the given word: EASY
A) Teasy
B) Dizzy
C) Lazy
D) Crazy
_____________________________________________________________
Q2798296 Fill in the blanks with correct option:
Deepa worked _______ great sincerity.
A) for
B) with
C) in
D) by
_____________________________________________________________
Q2797861 Identify the word which has similar pronunciation as the given word:DISH
A) Blush
B) Wish
C) Crush
D) Smash
_____________________________________________________________
Q2798297 Fill in the blanks with correct option:
I jumped ________ the fence and ran after the thief.
A) under
B) over
C) above
D) to
_____________________________________________________________
Q2798313 Fill in the blanks with the correct form of verb:
The disease __________ to wipe out the entire population.
A) threaten
B) threatening
C) was threatened
D) threatens
_____________________________________________________________
Q2798295 Fill in the blanks with correct option:
We stayed ________ Singapore for one week.
A) inside
B) at
C) to
D) in
_____________________________________________________________
Q2798305 Chose the word that is spelt correctly and fill the blanks:
The kite ________ high.
A) sored
B) soered
C) soured
D) soared
_____________________________________________________________
Q2795737 'ନିଷ୍ଠା'- ବିଶେଷ୍ୟ ପଦର ବିଶେଷଣ କ'ଣ ହେବ?
A) ନିଷ୍ଠାକର
B) ନିଷ୍ଠିକ
C) ନୈଷ୍ଠିକ
D) ନିଷ୍ଠାପର
_____________________________________________________________
Q2795735 ନିମ୍ନଲିଖିତ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ କେଉଁଟି ମଧୁସୂଦନ ରାଓଙ୍କ ଶ୍ରେଷ୍ଠ ରଚନା?
A) ସମର ତରଙ୍ଗ
B) ନିର୍ଝରିଣୀ
C) ପ୍ରଣୟ ବଲ୍ଲରୀ
D) କୁସୁମାଞ୍ଜଳି
_____________________________________________________________
Q2795746 'ଚିର ଦୁଃଖ' ର ସମାସ ନିର୍ଣ୍ଣୟ କର।
A) ତୃତୀୟା
B) ଦ୍ଵିତୀୟା
C) ଷଷ୍ଠୀ
D) ଚତୁର୍ଥୀ
_____________________________________________________________
Q2795747 'କୁହୁଡି ପହଁରିବା' - ଉକ୍ତ ରୂଢିର ଅର୍ଥ କ'ଣ?
A) ଉପରେ ଉପରେ ଭାସିବା
B) କିଛି ନଜାଣି କହିବା
C) ମିଛ କଥା କହିବା
D) ମୂଲ୍ୟହୀନ ପରିଶ୍ରମ କରିବା
_____________________________________________________________
Q2795857 'ପିତୃ+ଇଚ୍ଛା' ଏହାକୁ ସନ୍ଧି କଲେ କଣ ହେବ?
A) ପିତରିଚ୍ଛା
B) ପିତ୍ରିଚ୍ଛା
C) ପିତୃଚ୍ଛା
D) ପିତୃଇଚ୍ଛା
_____________________________________________________________
Q2795859 "ଇଶ୍ଵର ବିନା ମୁକ୍ତି ନାହିଁ|" ରେଖାଙ୍କିତ ପଦଟି କେଉଁ ବିଭକ୍ତି ଅଟେ?
A) ସପ୍ତମୀ
B) ଷଷ୍ଠୀ
C) ଚତୁର୍ଥୀ
D) ପଞ୍ଚମୀ
_____________________________________________________________
Q2795858 "କଏଦୀ ଟି କାରାଗାରରୁ ମୁକ୍ତି ପାଇଲା|" ରେଖାଙ୍କିତ ଶବ୍ଦ କେଉଁ କାରକକୁ ସୂଚାଏ?
A) ଅଧିକରଣ କାରକ
B) କର୍ମ କାରକ
C) କର୍ତ୍ତା କାରକ
D) ଅପାଦାନ କାରକ
_____________________________________________________________
Q2795853 'ନିର୍ଦ୍ଧିଷ୍ଟ' ଶବ୍ଦଟିର ପ୍ରକୃତି ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ନିର୍ଦ୍ଦେଶ କର|
A) ନିର୍-ଦିଶ୍+ତ
B) ନିର୍-ଦିଶ+ଟ
C) ନିଃ- ଦିଶ୍+ଟ
D) ନିଃ-ଦିଶ୍+ତ
_____________________________________________________________
Q2795748 ନିମ୍ନଲିଖିତ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ ଶୁଦ୍ଧ ଶବ୍ଦଟିକୁ ଚୟନ କର।
A) ଈଶତ୍
B) ଈସତ୍
C) ଇଷତ୍
D) ଈଷତ୍
_____________________________________________________________
Q2795842 ଦେଶଛାଡ଼ି ଜଣେ ବ୍ୟକ୍ତି ଯଦି ବିଦେଶରେ କୋଡ଼ିଏବର୍ଷ ରହିଯାଏ ତେବେ ସେହି ବିଦେଶଟା ତାଙ୍କର ଦ୍ଵିତୀୟ ଘର ହୋଇଯାଏ| ମହାତ୍ମା ଗାନ୍ଧୀଙ୍କ କ୍ଷେତ୍ରରେ ଦକ୍ଷିଣ ଆଫ୍ରିକା ତାଙ୍କର ଦ୍ଵିତୀୟ ଘର ପାଲଟିଯାଇଥିଲା| ସେଠାରେ ସେ ଇଂରେଜ ମାନଙ୍କର ବିଭିନ୍ନ ପ୍ରକାର ଦାଉ ସହି ଭାରତୀୟ ମାନଙ୍କର ସ୍ୱତ୍ତ୍ୱାଧିକାର ନିମନ୍ତେ ନିର୍ଭୟରେ ଲଢେଇ କରୁଥିଲେ | ଏଥିପାଇଁ ସେ ଦୃଢପ୍ରତିଜ୍ଞ ହୋଇ ଅହର୍ନିଶ ପରିଶ୍ରମ କରୁଥିଲେ | ପରିଶେଷରେ ସଫଳତା ହାସଲ କରି ନିଜ ଦେଶକୁ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟା ବର୍ତ୍ତନ କଲେ|
Q2795846 "ସ୍ୱତ୍ତ୍ୱାଧିକାର" - ଉକ୍ତ ଶବ୍ଦର ସଠିକ୍ ଶୁଦ୍ଧ ରୂପଟି ଚୟନ କର|
A) ସ୍ୱତ୍ୟାଧିକାର
B) ସ୍ୱତ୍ୱଧୀକାର
C) ସ୍ୱତ୍ତ୍ୱାଧିକାର
D) ସ୍ୱତ୍ୱାଧିକାର
_____________________________________________________________
Q2795843 "ମହାତ୍ମା"- ଉକ୍ତ ପଦର ସମାସ ନିରୂପଣ କର|
A) ଅବ୍ୟୟୀଭାବ
B) ବହୁବ୍ରୀହି
C) କର୍ମ ଧାରୟ
D) ନିତ୍ୟ
_____________________________________________________________
Q2795844 "ଅହର୍ନିଶ" ର ଶୁଦ୍ଧ ବନାନ ନିର୍ଣ୍ଣୟ କର |
A) ଅହର୍ନିଶି
B) ଅହର୍ନିଷ
C) ଅହର୍ନିଶ
D) ଅହର୍ନୀଶି
_____________________________________________________________
Q2795845 "ଦୃଢ ପ୍ରତିଜ୍ଞ"- ଉକ୍ତ ସମାସର ବିଗ୍ରହ ବାକ୍ୟ ନିର୍ଣ୍ଣୟ କର|
A) ଦୃଢ ପ୍ରତିଜ୍ଞା ଯାହାର
B) ଦୃଢ ଅଟେ ପ୍ରତିଜ୍ଞା
C) ପ୍ରତିଜ୍ଞାରେ ଦୃଢ
D) ଦୃଢତାର ସହ ପ୍ରତିଜ୍ଞା
_____________________________________________________________
Q2795847 "ନିର୍ଭୟ"- ଏହା କେଉଁ ଅର୍ଥରେ ଅବ୍ୟୟୀଭାବ ସମାସ ହୋଇଛି ଦର୍ଶାଅ |
A) ବିପରୀତ
B) ଅଭାବ
C) ନ୍ୟୁନ
D) ଯୋଗ୍ୟତା
_____________________________________________________________
Q2795850 "ଲଣ୍ଠନଟି ମିଞ୍ଜିମିଞ୍ଜି ଜଳୁଛି|" ରେଖାଙ୍କିତ ପଦଟି କି ପ୍ରକାର ବିଶେଷଣ ନିର୍ଣ୍ଣୟ କର|
A) କ୍ରିୟା ବାଚକ
B) ଅବସ୍ଥା ବାଚକ
C) ସାର୍ବନାମିକ
D) ଗୁଣ ବାଚକ
_____________________________________________________________
Q2795860 ଭିନ୍ନଧର୍ମୀ ଶବ୍ଦକୁ ଚିହ୍ନଟ କର |
A) ଉପମାନ
B) ଉପପଦ
C) ରୂପକ
D) ଉପମିତ
_____________________________________________________________
Q2795854 'ପୌଷ'- ଏଠାରେ ଥିବା ମୂଳ ଶବ୍ଦଟିକୁ ବାଛ|
A) ପୂଷ
B) ପୁଷ୍ୟ
C) ପୁଷ
D) ପୁଷ୍ୟା
_____________________________________________________________
Q2795848 ନିମ୍ନଲିଖିତ ଲେଖକଙ୍କ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ କିଏ 'କୋଟି ବ୍ରହ୍ମାଣ୍ଡ ସୁନ୍ଦରୀ' ର ରଚୟିତା ଅଟନ୍ତି?
A) ଉପେନ୍ଦ୍ରଭଞ୍ଜ
B) ନନ୍ଦ କିଶୋର ବଳ
C) ଆଭିମନ୍ୟୁ ସାମନ୍ତ ସିଂହାର
D) ବ୍ରଜନାଥ ବଡ଼ଜେନା
_____________________________________________________________
Q2795738 "ଯାହା ଅନ୍ୟର କ୍ଷତିକାରକ, ତାହା ହିଁ ଅମଙ୍ଗଳ"- ରେଖାଙ୍କିତ ପଦଦ୍ଵୟ କେଉଁ ପ୍ରକାର ସର୍ବନାମ ଅଟେ?
A) ଆପେକ୍ଷିକ
B) ନିର୍ଣ୍ଣାୟକ
C) ପୁରୁଷ ବାଚକ
D) ନିର୍ଦ୍ଦେଶାତ୍ମକ
_____________________________________________________________
Q2795855 'ଏ ବର୍ଷର ଶୀତ ଅସହ୍ୟ|' ଏହା କି ପ୍ରକାର ବାକ୍ୟ?
A) ବିସ୍ମୟ ସୂଚକ
B) ବିବୃତ୍ତି ସୂଚକ
C) ଅଦେଶ ସୂଚକ
D) ପ୍ରଶ୍ନ ସୂଚକ
_____________________________________________________________
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